Showing a sum is positiveFinding Binomial expansion of a radicalSimplify the Expression $sum _{ k=0 }^{ n }{...

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Showing a sum is positive


Finding Binomial expansion of a radicalSimplify the Expression $sum _{ k=0 }^{ n }{ binom{n}{k}}i^{k}3^{k-n} $Alternative combinatorial proof for $sumlimits_{r=0}^nbinom{n}{r}binom{m+r}{n}=sumlimits_{r=0}^nbinom{n}{r}binom{m}{r}2^r$Proof by induction, binomial coefficientApproximating a binomial sum over a simplexHow to expand $sqrt{x^6+1}$ using Maclaurin's seriesSum of ${m choose j}$ multiplied by $2^{2^j}$How to show that $sumlimits_{k=0}^n (-1)^ktfrac{{ {n}choose{k}}}{{ {x+k}choose{k}}} = frac{x}{x+n}$Finite sum with inverse binomialShowing an alternating sum is positive













2












$begingroup$



Show that the sum$$sum_{k=0}^{n} {n choose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1}$$ is a positive rational number.




It is easy to show that it is a rational number. But I am having trouble showing that this expression is positive. It might be some binomial expansion that I could not get.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried using induction on $n$ for example?
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    1 hour ago


















2












$begingroup$



Show that the sum$$sum_{k=0}^{n} {n choose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1}$$ is a positive rational number.




It is easy to show that it is a rational number. But I am having trouble showing that this expression is positive. It might be some binomial expansion that I could not get.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried using induction on $n$ for example?
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    1 hour ago
















2












2








2


1



$begingroup$



Show that the sum$$sum_{k=0}^{n} {n choose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1}$$ is a positive rational number.




It is easy to show that it is a rational number. But I am having trouble showing that this expression is positive. It might be some binomial expansion that I could not get.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Show that the sum$$sum_{k=0}^{n} {n choose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1}$$ is a positive rational number.




It is easy to show that it is a rational number. But I am having trouble showing that this expression is positive. It might be some binomial expansion that I could not get.







combinatorics summation binomial-coefficients binomial-ideals






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 1 hour ago







Hitendra Kumar

















asked 1 hour ago









Hitendra KumarHitendra Kumar

606




606








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried using induction on $n$ for example?
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    1 hour ago
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried using induction on $n$ for example?
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    1 hour ago










1




1




$begingroup$
Have you tried using induction on $n$ for example?
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
1 hour ago






$begingroup$
Have you tried using induction on $n$ for example?
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
1 hour ago












3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

Direct proof:
$$begin{split}
sum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1} &=sum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}(-1)^kint_0^1 x^{n+k}dx\
&=int_0^1x^nsum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}(-x)^kdx\
&=int_0^1x^n(1-x)^ndx
end{split}$$

The latter is clearly a positive number.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks,I got it.
    $endgroup$
    – Hitendra Kumar
    42 mins ago










  • $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    41 mins ago










  • $begingroup$
    How did you conclude that the sum is a limited integral? Do you know where can I find more on this on-line? Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – NoChance
    40 mins ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's a "known trick" that $frac 1 {p+1} = int_0^1x^pdx$. Then I noticed that the sum looked almost like that of the binomial theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    35 mins ago










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for responding.Got it.
    $endgroup$
    – NoChance
    25 mins ago





















3












$begingroup$

When $k=0$ the term is positive. When $k=1$ the term is negative BUT SMALLER (in absolute value) THAN THE $k=0$ TERM.



When $k=2$ the term is positive. When $k=3$ the term is negative BUT SMALLER (in absolute value) THAN THE $k=2$ TERM.



.....



Get it?






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    sorry, I did not write question correctly. Now, I have corrected that. By looking at your answer I realized my mistake. Thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Hitendra Kumar
    1 hour ago



















0












$begingroup$

We can specifically prove that
$$
boxed{sum_{k=0}^{n} {n choose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1}=left((2n+1)binom{2n}nright)^{-1}}
$$

To see this, shuffle a deck of $2n+1$ cards numbered $1$ to $n$. Consider this:




What is the probability that card number $n+1$ is in the middle of the deck, and cards numbered $1$ to $n$ are below it?




The easy answer is the fraction on the RHS. The LHS can be interpreted as an application of the principle of inclusion exclusion. Namely, we first take the probability that card number of $n+1$ is the lowest of the cards numbered $n+1,n+2,dots,2n+1$. This is the $k=0$ term. From this, for each $i=1,dots,n$, we subtract the probability that $n+1$ is the lowest of the list $i,n+1,n+2,dots,2n+1$. This is a bad event, because we want $n+1$ to be above $i$. Doing this for each $i$, we subtract $binom{n}1frac{1}{n+2}$. We then must add back in the doubly subtracted events, subtract the triple intersections, and so on, eventually ending with the alternating sum on the left.






share|cite









$endgroup$













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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    4












    $begingroup$

    Direct proof:
    $$begin{split}
    sum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1} &=sum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}(-1)^kint_0^1 x^{n+k}dx\
    &=int_0^1x^nsum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}(-x)^kdx\
    &=int_0^1x^n(1-x)^ndx
    end{split}$$

    The latter is clearly a positive number.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks,I got it.
      $endgroup$
      – Hitendra Kumar
      42 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      You're welcome!
      $endgroup$
      – Stefan Lafon
      41 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      How did you conclude that the sum is a limited integral? Do you know where can I find more on this on-line? Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – NoChance
      40 mins ago






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It's a "known trick" that $frac 1 {p+1} = int_0^1x^pdx$. Then I noticed that the sum looked almost like that of the binomial theorem.
      $endgroup$
      – Stefan Lafon
      35 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for responding.Got it.
      $endgroup$
      – NoChance
      25 mins ago


















    4












    $begingroup$

    Direct proof:
    $$begin{split}
    sum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1} &=sum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}(-1)^kint_0^1 x^{n+k}dx\
    &=int_0^1x^nsum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}(-x)^kdx\
    &=int_0^1x^n(1-x)^ndx
    end{split}$$

    The latter is clearly a positive number.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks,I got it.
      $endgroup$
      – Hitendra Kumar
      42 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      You're welcome!
      $endgroup$
      – Stefan Lafon
      41 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      How did you conclude that the sum is a limited integral? Do you know where can I find more on this on-line? Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – NoChance
      40 mins ago






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It's a "known trick" that $frac 1 {p+1} = int_0^1x^pdx$. Then I noticed that the sum looked almost like that of the binomial theorem.
      $endgroup$
      – Stefan Lafon
      35 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for responding.Got it.
      $endgroup$
      – NoChance
      25 mins ago
















    4












    4








    4





    $begingroup$

    Direct proof:
    $$begin{split}
    sum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1} &=sum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}(-1)^kint_0^1 x^{n+k}dx\
    &=int_0^1x^nsum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}(-x)^kdx\
    &=int_0^1x^n(1-x)^ndx
    end{split}$$

    The latter is clearly a positive number.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Direct proof:
    $$begin{split}
    sum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1} &=sum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}(-1)^kint_0^1 x^{n+k}dx\
    &=int_0^1x^nsum_{k=0}^{n} {nchoose k}(-x)^kdx\
    &=int_0^1x^n(1-x)^ndx
    end{split}$$

    The latter is clearly a positive number.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered 1 hour ago









    Stefan LafonStefan Lafon

    3,00019




    3,00019












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks,I got it.
      $endgroup$
      – Hitendra Kumar
      42 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      You're welcome!
      $endgroup$
      – Stefan Lafon
      41 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      How did you conclude that the sum is a limited integral? Do you know where can I find more on this on-line? Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – NoChance
      40 mins ago






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It's a "known trick" that $frac 1 {p+1} = int_0^1x^pdx$. Then I noticed that the sum looked almost like that of the binomial theorem.
      $endgroup$
      – Stefan Lafon
      35 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for responding.Got it.
      $endgroup$
      – NoChance
      25 mins ago




















    • $begingroup$
      Thanks,I got it.
      $endgroup$
      – Hitendra Kumar
      42 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      You're welcome!
      $endgroup$
      – Stefan Lafon
      41 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      How did you conclude that the sum is a limited integral? Do you know where can I find more on this on-line? Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – NoChance
      40 mins ago






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It's a "known trick" that $frac 1 {p+1} = int_0^1x^pdx$. Then I noticed that the sum looked almost like that of the binomial theorem.
      $endgroup$
      – Stefan Lafon
      35 mins ago










    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for responding.Got it.
      $endgroup$
      – NoChance
      25 mins ago


















    $begingroup$
    Thanks,I got it.
    $endgroup$
    – Hitendra Kumar
    42 mins ago




    $begingroup$
    Thanks,I got it.
    $endgroup$
    – Hitendra Kumar
    42 mins ago












    $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    41 mins ago




    $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    41 mins ago












    $begingroup$
    How did you conclude that the sum is a limited integral? Do you know where can I find more on this on-line? Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – NoChance
    40 mins ago




    $begingroup$
    How did you conclude that the sum is a limited integral? Do you know where can I find more on this on-line? Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – NoChance
    40 mins ago




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    It's a "known trick" that $frac 1 {p+1} = int_0^1x^pdx$. Then I noticed that the sum looked almost like that of the binomial theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    35 mins ago




    $begingroup$
    It's a "known trick" that $frac 1 {p+1} = int_0^1x^pdx$. Then I noticed that the sum looked almost like that of the binomial theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    35 mins ago












    $begingroup$
    Thanks for responding.Got it.
    $endgroup$
    – NoChance
    25 mins ago






    $begingroup$
    Thanks for responding.Got it.
    $endgroup$
    – NoChance
    25 mins ago













    3












    $begingroup$

    When $k=0$ the term is positive. When $k=1$ the term is negative BUT SMALLER (in absolute value) THAN THE $k=0$ TERM.



    When $k=2$ the term is positive. When $k=3$ the term is negative BUT SMALLER (in absolute value) THAN THE $k=2$ TERM.



    .....



    Get it?






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      sorry, I did not write question correctly. Now, I have corrected that. By looking at your answer I realized my mistake. Thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Hitendra Kumar
      1 hour ago
















    3












    $begingroup$

    When $k=0$ the term is positive. When $k=1$ the term is negative BUT SMALLER (in absolute value) THAN THE $k=0$ TERM.



    When $k=2$ the term is positive. When $k=3$ the term is negative BUT SMALLER (in absolute value) THAN THE $k=2$ TERM.



    .....



    Get it?






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      sorry, I did not write question correctly. Now, I have corrected that. By looking at your answer I realized my mistake. Thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Hitendra Kumar
      1 hour ago














    3












    3








    3





    $begingroup$

    When $k=0$ the term is positive. When $k=1$ the term is negative BUT SMALLER (in absolute value) THAN THE $k=0$ TERM.



    When $k=2$ the term is positive. When $k=3$ the term is negative BUT SMALLER (in absolute value) THAN THE $k=2$ TERM.



    .....



    Get it?






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    When $k=0$ the term is positive. When $k=1$ the term is negative BUT SMALLER (in absolute value) THAN THE $k=0$ TERM.



    When $k=2$ the term is positive. When $k=3$ the term is negative BUT SMALLER (in absolute value) THAN THE $k=2$ TERM.



    .....



    Get it?







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered 1 hour ago









    David G. StorkDavid G. Stork

    11.1k41432




    11.1k41432












    • $begingroup$
      sorry, I did not write question correctly. Now, I have corrected that. By looking at your answer I realized my mistake. Thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Hitendra Kumar
      1 hour ago


















    • $begingroup$
      sorry, I did not write question correctly. Now, I have corrected that. By looking at your answer I realized my mistake. Thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Hitendra Kumar
      1 hour ago
















    $begingroup$
    sorry, I did not write question correctly. Now, I have corrected that. By looking at your answer I realized my mistake. Thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Hitendra Kumar
    1 hour ago




    $begingroup$
    sorry, I did not write question correctly. Now, I have corrected that. By looking at your answer I realized my mistake. Thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Hitendra Kumar
    1 hour ago











    0












    $begingroup$

    We can specifically prove that
    $$
    boxed{sum_{k=0}^{n} {n choose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1}=left((2n+1)binom{2n}nright)^{-1}}
    $$

    To see this, shuffle a deck of $2n+1$ cards numbered $1$ to $n$. Consider this:




    What is the probability that card number $n+1$ is in the middle of the deck, and cards numbered $1$ to $n$ are below it?




    The easy answer is the fraction on the RHS. The LHS can be interpreted as an application of the principle of inclusion exclusion. Namely, we first take the probability that card number of $n+1$ is the lowest of the cards numbered $n+1,n+2,dots,2n+1$. This is the $k=0$ term. From this, for each $i=1,dots,n$, we subtract the probability that $n+1$ is the lowest of the list $i,n+1,n+2,dots,2n+1$. This is a bad event, because we want $n+1$ to be above $i$. Doing this for each $i$, we subtract $binom{n}1frac{1}{n+2}$. We then must add back in the doubly subtracted events, subtract the triple intersections, and so on, eventually ending with the alternating sum on the left.






    share|cite









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      We can specifically prove that
      $$
      boxed{sum_{k=0}^{n} {n choose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1}=left((2n+1)binom{2n}nright)^{-1}}
      $$

      To see this, shuffle a deck of $2n+1$ cards numbered $1$ to $n$. Consider this:




      What is the probability that card number $n+1$ is in the middle of the deck, and cards numbered $1$ to $n$ are below it?




      The easy answer is the fraction on the RHS. The LHS can be interpreted as an application of the principle of inclusion exclusion. Namely, we first take the probability that card number of $n+1$ is the lowest of the cards numbered $n+1,n+2,dots,2n+1$. This is the $k=0$ term. From this, for each $i=1,dots,n$, we subtract the probability that $n+1$ is the lowest of the list $i,n+1,n+2,dots,2n+1$. This is a bad event, because we want $n+1$ to be above $i$. Doing this for each $i$, we subtract $binom{n}1frac{1}{n+2}$. We then must add back in the doubly subtracted events, subtract the triple intersections, and so on, eventually ending with the alternating sum on the left.






      share|cite









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        We can specifically prove that
        $$
        boxed{sum_{k=0}^{n} {n choose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1}=left((2n+1)binom{2n}nright)^{-1}}
        $$

        To see this, shuffle a deck of $2n+1$ cards numbered $1$ to $n$. Consider this:




        What is the probability that card number $n+1$ is in the middle of the deck, and cards numbered $1$ to $n$ are below it?




        The easy answer is the fraction on the RHS. The LHS can be interpreted as an application of the principle of inclusion exclusion. Namely, we first take the probability that card number of $n+1$ is the lowest of the cards numbered $n+1,n+2,dots,2n+1$. This is the $k=0$ term. From this, for each $i=1,dots,n$, we subtract the probability that $n+1$ is the lowest of the list $i,n+1,n+2,dots,2n+1$. This is a bad event, because we want $n+1$ to be above $i$. Doing this for each $i$, we subtract $binom{n}1frac{1}{n+2}$. We then must add back in the doubly subtracted events, subtract the triple intersections, and so on, eventually ending with the alternating sum on the left.






        share|cite









        $endgroup$



        We can specifically prove that
        $$
        boxed{sum_{k=0}^{n} {n choose k}frac{{(-1)}^k}{n+k+1}=left((2n+1)binom{2n}nright)^{-1}}
        $$

        To see this, shuffle a deck of $2n+1$ cards numbered $1$ to $n$. Consider this:




        What is the probability that card number $n+1$ is in the middle of the deck, and cards numbered $1$ to $n$ are below it?




        The easy answer is the fraction on the RHS. The LHS can be interpreted as an application of the principle of inclusion exclusion. Namely, we first take the probability that card number of $n+1$ is the lowest of the cards numbered $n+1,n+2,dots,2n+1$. This is the $k=0$ term. From this, for each $i=1,dots,n$, we subtract the probability that $n+1$ is the lowest of the list $i,n+1,n+2,dots,2n+1$. This is a bad event, because we want $n+1$ to be above $i$. Doing this for each $i$, we subtract $binom{n}1frac{1}{n+2}$. We then must add back in the doubly subtracted events, subtract the triple intersections, and so on, eventually ending with the alternating sum on the left.







        share|cite












        share|cite



        share|cite










        answered 6 mins ago









        Mike EarnestMike Earnest

        25.5k22151




        25.5k22151






























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